Thursday, August 14, 2008

A Hundred Questions in Obstetrics + some NOTEs

1). Ovulation occurs:

a 15 days after menstruation
b 7 days after menstruation
c 14 days before menstruation*
d 20 days after menstruation
e 10 days before menstruation …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2). How many times a year will a healthy 25 year old woman ovulate?

a 5 to 7 times
b 9 to 11 times
c 13 to 14 times*
d 15 to 20 times
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
3). Ovulation is best proved by:

a). Laparoscopy
b). Endometrial biopsy*
c). Basal body temperature
d). Vaginal epithelial cell histology …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4). Monophasic body temperature is seen in:

a pregnancy only
b ovulatory cycle only
c anovulatory cycle only*
d both pregnancy/ovulatory cycle e both pregnancy/anovulatory cycle …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5). Mittelschmerz is pain associated with:

a vomiting
b ovulation*
c defecation
d sexual intercourse …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

6). The increase of the basal body temperature in menstrual cycle is due to:

a hCG
b FSH
c androgen
d estrogen e progesterone* …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7). The time between fertilization (occurs in the tubal ampulla) and implantation of the embryo is:

a 4 days
b 7 days*
c 10 days
d 14 days e 31 days …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

8). A normal pregnancy is defined to last from:

a). 36 to 44 weeks
b). 36 to 42 weeks
c). 38 to 42 weeks*
d). 38 to 46 weeks
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……..

9). A woman with strong desire for pregnancy falsely believes she is pregnant, this is called:

a pseudocyesis*
b factitious disorder
c dissociative disorder
d somatoform disorder
..........................................................................................................

10). Which of the following is the first indication of pregnancy?

a). Skin pigmentations
b). Nausea and vomiting
c). Increase in breast size
d). Missed menstrual period*
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………....

11). During the first trimester of pregnancy the source of elevated both estrogen and progesterone is:

a placenta
b fetal liver
c corpus luteum*
d maternal ovaries
e Fetal adrenal gland
..........................................................................................................

12). Placenta produces:
a human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
b human chorionic thyrotropin (hCT)
c human chorionic adrenochorticotropine (hACT)
d human placental lactogen (hPL)
e all of the above*
..........................................................................................................

13). Placenta produces:

a relaxin
b prolactin
c prostaglandins
d estrogen and progesterone
e all of the above*
..........................................................................................................

14). Placenta can be best localized by:

a pelvic X ray
b radioisotopic scan
c physical examination
d colposcopy
e ultrasound*

..........................................................................................................

15). Which of the following immunoglobulins crosses the placenta and provides immunity for the newborn?
a IgG*
b IgA
c IgM
d IgD
e IgE

..........................................................................................................

16). Nullipara is a woman who:

a has just given birth
b had never been pregnant
c had two or more miscarriages
d has never completed a pregnancy to term*
e has never completed two or more pregnancies to term

..........................................................................................................

17).A woman who has been pregnant only once giving birth to a set of twins is called:

a puerpera
b nulligravida
c primipara*
d nullipara
e multipara

..........................................................................................................

18). A woman who has never completed a pregnancy to term is called:

a primigravida
b nulligravida
c primipara d nullipara***
e multipara

..........................................................................................................


Trimesters

• T1 (First trimester)à 0 to 12 weeks
• T2 (Second trimesters)à 28to 40 weeks
• T3 (Third trimesterà 28 to 40 weeks ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

Gestational Age (GA) & Size Classification by gestational age (GA)

• Pre-termà<37>
• Termà 37 to 42 weeks
• Post-termà >42 weeks

..................................................................................................................................................

Classification by birth weight
• Small for gestational age (SGA)à 2SD <>
• Accurate for gestational age (AGA)à with 2SD of mean weight for GA
• Large for gestational age (LGA)à 2SD>mean weight for GA or > 90th percentile Methods of determining postnatal GA Assessment at delivery of physical maturity (eg, planter creases, lanugo, ear maturation) and neuromuscular maturity (eg, posture, arm recoil)

..........................................................................................................

GTPAL format
1. Gravidity (G) • Total number of pregnancies of any gestation These include recurrent pregnancy, abortion, ectopic pregnancy and hydatiform mole (twins = one pregnancy).
2. Parity (TPAL) • Tà number of term infants delivered (>37 weeks)

• Pà number of premature infants delivered (20-37 weeks)
• Aà number of abortions (loss of intrauterine pregnancy prior to viability of fetus <20>
• Là number of living children ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………...

19). A woman has an obstetric history of 5-1-2-3, how many abortions she had?
a 5
b 1
c 2*
d 3

..........................................................................................................

20). A woman has an obstetric history of 5-1-2-3, how many premature deliveries she had?

a 5
b 1*
c 2
d 3

..........................................................................................................

21). 30 yr old Primigravida, at term with twin pregnancy
a). Gravida1 para2
b). G2 P2
c). G 1 *
d). G2 P1
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………....

22). A woman who has visible triplet in her first pregnancy is described as:

a). Gravida 1 and para 0
b). Gravida 1 and para 1*
c). Gravida 1 and para 3
d). Gravida 3 and para 1 ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………....

23). You are taking a history from a 24-year-old mother of three who is currently 10 weeks pregnant and has had one previous abortion and one previous twin gestation. Which one of the following is her gravidity and parity?

1) gravida 4, para 1
2) gravida 4, para 2*
3) gravida 3, para 2
4) gravida 2, para 2
5) gravida 3, para 1 ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………....

24). In an obstetric history of G5P6789, digit 5 stands for the number of:
a). Abortions
b). Pregnancies*
c). Living children
d). Term pregnancies ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………....

25). In an obstetric history of G5P6789, digit 6 stands for the number of:
a). Abortions
b). Pregnancies
c). Living children
d). Term pregnancies* ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………....
26). In an obstetric history of G5P6789, digit 7 stands for the number of:
a). Abortions
b). Pregnancies
c). Living children
d). Preterm pregnancies*
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………....
27). In an obstetric history G5P6789, digit 8 stands for:

a). Abortions*
b). Pregnancies
c). Live children
d). Term pregnancies ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………....

28). In an obstetric history of G5P6789, digit 9 stands for the number of:

a). Abortions
b). Pregnancies
c). Living children*
d). Preterm pregnancies

..........................................................................................................

29). Chadwick’s, Goodell’s and Hegar’s signs are associated with:

a). Puberty
b). Pregnancy*
c). Pancreatic carcinoma
d). Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

30). A 4 weeks of pregnancy, cyanosis, and softening of the cervix is due to increased vascularity of the cervical tissue, this is known as:

a). Ladin’s sign
b). Hegar’s sign
c). Goodell’s sign*
d). Von Fernwald’s sign …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

31). Chadwick’s sign refers to:
a). Vulvar swelling
b). Increased vaginal secretion
c). Softening of the cervix
d). Bluish discoloration of the vagina* …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

32). Softening of the cervical isthmus in early pregnancy is called:

a). Cullin’s sign
b). Hegar’s sign*
c). Hoover’s sign
d). Chadwick’s sign
........................................................................................................................................................

1. Goodell’s signà softening of the cervix (4-6 weeks)
2. Chadwick’s signà bluish discoloration (cyanosis) of the cervix and vagina due to pelvic vasculature engorgement (6 weeks)
3. Hegar’s signà softening of the cervical isthmus(cervicouterine junction) 6-8 weeks ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

33). At 6 weeks of pregnancy, the uterus softens in the anterior midline along the uterocervical junction, this is known as:

a). Ladin’s sign*
b). Hegar’s sign
c). McDonald’s sign
d). Von Fernwald’s sign ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

34). A 7-8 weeks of pregnancy, the uterus becomes flexible at the uterocervical junction, this is known as:
a). Ladin’s sign
b). Hegar’s sign
c). McDonald’s sign*
d). Von Fernwald’s sign ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

35). At 4-5 weeks of pregnancy, an irregular softening of the uterine fundus develops over the site of implantation, this is known as:

a). Ladin’s sign b).
Hegar’s sign
c). McDonald’s sign
d). Von Fernwald’s sign* ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

36). Adler sign is associated with:
a). Adrenal tumor
b). Ectopic pregnancy*
c). Testicular torsion
d). Polycystic kidney disease ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

37). Adler sign (fixed abdominal tenderness on turning the patient) is associated with:
a). Peptic ulcer
b). Ectopic pregnancy*
c). Testicular torsion
d). Chronic pancreatitis ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

38). In the absence of intra-abdominal abscess the X-ray shows sternocondral widening, this is called:
a). Cullin’s signs
b). Hegar’s sign
c). Hoover’s sign*
d). Chadwick sign …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

39). The upper pole (fundus) of the uterus is palpable at the level of the umbilicus at:
a 4 weeks of pregnancy
b 8 weeks of pregnancy
c 20 weeks of pregnancy*
d 28 weeks of pregnancy
e 36 weeks of pregnancy
..........................................................................................................................................

SFH uterine fundus at pubic symphysisà1. 12 weeks
Fundus is atà2. 20 weeks umbilicus
• SFH should be within 2 cm of GA between 20 and 37 weeks 3.
Fundus at sternum.à27 weeks ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

40). A lady with 6 months of amenorrhea, pregnancy test positive. She felt fetal movements 2 months back. PE- fundal height is 27 cm. What the approximate gestational age?

................................................................................................................................................

27 weeksàType one answer After 20 wks gestational age in weeks corresponds to centimeters e.g, 27 cm = 27 weeks

........................................................................................
Differential diagnosis of pregnancy

1. Non-pregnant uterus enlarged by myomas can be confused with "the gravid uterus but it is usually very firm and irregular
2. Ovarian tumor may be found midline, displacing the nonpregnant uterus to side or posteriorly. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

41). β-hCG is positive in serum:
a). 1 day postconception
b). 7 day postconception
c). 8 day postconception
d). 9 day postconception*
e). none of the above ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
42). β-hCG is positive in urine:

a). 1 day postconception
b). 7 day postconception
c). 8 day postconception
d). 9 day postconception
e). 28 days after last menstrual period (LMP)*

.........................................................................
• Produced by placental trophoblastic cells • Maintains the corpus luteum during pregnancy ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

43). In the first 100 days of pregnancy, human chorionic gonadotropin titre doubles:

a. every day
b. every week
c. every 2 days*
d. every month
e. every 2 weeks

................................................................................
• Double every 48 hours (after every 2 days)

..........................................................................................................

44). Level of hCG is highest during:
a). 12 weeks gestation*
b). 22 weeks gestation
c). 25 weeks gestation
d). 28 weeks gestation

.............................................................................................
• 10th wk= 100,000 IUàReach a peak at 50-75 days
• Fall to lower levels in the second and third trimesters β-hCG

..................................................................................................
rule of 10s
1. 10 IU at time of missed menses
2. 100,000 IU at 10 weeks (peak)
3. 10,000 IU at term …………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…..

45). Pregnancy test is positive from the first day of missed period until:

a 2 weeks of pregnancy
b 20 weeks of pregnancy*
c 37 weeks of pregnancy
d the end of pregnancy e 20 weeks after delivery


...............................................................................................................................................................

46). Pregnancy test can be positive in:
a ectopic pregnancy
b trophoblastic disease
c spontaneous abortion
d all of the above*
..................................................................................................................................................................

47). Urinary pregnancy tests are positive in ectopic pregnancy in about:
a 30%
b 50%
c 70%
d 90%
e 100%*

..........................................................................................................

48). Increased human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) after pregnancy may suggest the diagnosis of:
a carcinoma of the cervix
b uterine choriocarcinoma/hydatidiform mole*
c carcinoma of the uterine corpus
d granulosa cell tumor of the ovary
e anencephalic pregnancy

...................................................................................................................................................................

48). hCG/estriol levels are decreased in:

a). Normal pregnancy
b). Hydatiform mole
c). Fetal death in utero*
d). Testicular mixed germ cell tumor

.......................................................................
Levels below expected by dates suggest
1. Ectopic pregnancy
2. Abortion
3. Wrong dates

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………...................................
49). hCG is NOT increased in association with:

a). Seminoma
b). Hydatiform mole
c). Fetal death in the uterus*
d). Nonseminomatous testicular carcinoma


.....................................................................
Levels higher than expected suggest:
1. Multiple gestations
2. Molar pregnancy
3. Trisomy 21 4. Wrong dates

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..


50). Elevation of either AFP or hCG is found in 80 to 90 percent of patients with:

a hepatoma
b nonHodgkin's lymphoma
c gastric and colon cancer
d nonseminomatous germ cell testicular tumors*

..........................................................................................................


51). Hydatidiform mole is NOT associated with:
a). snowstorm appearance on ultrasound scan
b). Increased hCG and positive pregnancy test
c). Increased hCS (human chorionic somatomammotropin)*
d). Vaginal bleeding and first trimester preeclampsia ………………………………………………………………………………………………………...……….

52). After the delivery of hydatidiform mole, the woman should have repeated:

a chest X rays
b dilatation/curettage
c hCG titers*
d uterine biopsies
e ultrasound

..........................................................................................................

53). The serum levels of which of the following should be tested in suspected testicular carcinoma?
a). Creatinine
b). IgA and IgM
c). Alkaline phosphatase
d). Alpha-fetoprotein and hCG*

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

54). Testicular tumor is associated with:

a). hCG
b). AFP
c). LDH
d). Al of the above ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

55). Tumor markers for testicular tumor include all of the following EXCEPT?

a). AFP
b). LDH
c). AST*
d). hCG
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

56). The incidence of elevated serum hCG is lowest in which of the testicular tumors?

a). Embryonal
b). Seminoma*
c). Choriocarcinoma
d). Teratocarcinoma ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

57). Fetal mortality rate refers to:

a). Fetal deaths per 1,000 total births
b). Fetal deaths per 5,000 total births
c). Fetal deaths per 10,000 live births
d). Fetal deaths in the third trimester of pregnancy* …………………………………………………………………………………………………………..……..

58). In normal pregnancy, fetal movements (quickening) starts:

a). Between 16 and 18 weeks*
b). Between 20 and 28 weeks
c). Between 26 and 38 weeks
d). Between 28 and 40 weeks

....................................................................
"Quickening" (perception of first movement noted at about the 18th week) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. .........................

59). Starting at what month of pregnancy the mother feels fetal movements (quickening)?

a). Third month
b). Fourth month*
c). Fifth month
d). Sixth month

.........................................................................
• First noticed by
18-20 weeks (primigravidas),
14-16 wks (multigravida)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

60). Starting at what month of pregnancy the fetal heartbeat can be heard with stethoscope?

a). Third month
b). Fourth month
c). Fifth month*
d). Sixth month


........................................................................................................
Fetal' heart tones can be heard by
• Doppler at 10-12 weeks of gestation
• Ordinary fetoscope at 10-12 weeks
Transvaginal U/S • 5 weeksà gestational sac visible (β-hCG = 100-1500 mIU/mL)
• 6 weeksàFetal pole scan
• 7-8 weeksà Fetal heart tone visible Transabdominal U/S
• 6-8 weeksà intrauterine pregnancy visible (β-hCG = 6,500 mIU/mL) ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

61). Starting at what month of pregnancy the fetal lungs are capable of breathing air?

a). Fifth month
b). Sixth month
c). Seventh month*
d). Eighth month

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

62). Regarding fetal development, lungs are capable of breathing air at:

a). 10th week of pregnancy
b). 14th week of pregnancy
c). 20th week of pregnancy
d). 25th week of pregnancy*

………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……...
63). Organogenesis occurs in

a). 1-3 weeks
b). 3-8 weeks*
c). 8-12 weeks
d). 12-15 weeks

.........................................................................
• 3-8 weeks GA is a critical period of organogenesis, so early preparation is vital. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……...

64). Starting at what month of pregnancy the fetal uterus forms?

a). Third month
b). Fourth month
c). Fifth month*
d). Sixth month

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………..…..

65). Starting at what month of pregnancy the fetal testes forms?

a). Third month
b). Fourth month
c). Fifth month*
d). Sixth month

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

66). Initial work up of Gynecomastia include all of the following EXCEPT

a). Mammography*
b). Serum hCG
c). Serum estrogen
d). Medication history ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

67). A woman with strong desire for pregnancy falsely believes she is pregnant, this is called:

a pseudocyesis*
b factitious disorder
c dissociative disorder
d somatoform disorder

..........................................................................................................

68). All are diagnosed by pelvic US antenatally except

a). Down*
b). hydrocephalus
c). hypoplastic left ventricle

..........................................................................................................

69). The average increase of cardiac output in a normal pregnancy is:

a 5%
b 10%
c 20%
d 40%*
e 70%

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………....

70). The BP measurement used to define hypertension during pregnancy is:

a). 80/150 mmHg
b). 90/140 mmHg*
c). 95/160 mmHg
d). 100/170 mmHg ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………....

71). ECG changes during pregnancy include all of the following, EXCEPT:

a). Inferior Q waves
b). Left axis deviation
c). Nonspecific ST-T wave changes
d). Prolonged PR and prolonged QT intervals*

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………....

72). Which of the following disorder is most likely to occur in women in their first trimester of pregnancy?

a). Tennis elbow
b). Trigger finger
c). Frozen shoulder
d). Carpal tunnel syndrome*

..............................................................
During pregnancy there is ↑ incidence of carpal tunnel syndrome and Bell’s palsy ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………....

73). Causes of melasma (chloasma) include:

a). Pregnancy
b). Birth control pills (OCP)
c). Both*
d). Neither

....................................................
Skin changes during pregnancy there are:
1. ↑ Pigmentation of perineum and areola,
2. Chloasma (pigmentation changes under eyes and on bridge of nose)
3. Linea nigra ( midline abdominal pigmentation)
4. Other • Spider angioma • Palmar erythema • Stria gravidarum
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………....

74). Which could be the causes of hyperamelasemia in a 16 year old girl?

a). Ovarian cyst
b). Normal pregnancy
c). Ruptured ectopic pregnancy
d). All of the above*

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………....

75). Pruritus is LEAST likely to be associated with:

a). Pregnancy
b). Acne vulgaris*
c). Hyperthyroidism
d). Carcinoid syndrome
e). Pregnancy

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………....

76). Which of the following is unchanged during pregnancy?

a). Vital capacity*
b). Residual volume
c). Inspiratory capacity
d). Expiratory capacity
..........................................................

Respiratory changes during pregnancy include:
1. ↑ O2 requirement,
elevated diaphragm,
↑ CO2 sensitivity due to progesterone constant VC
2. ↓ in TLC, FRC and RV with an ↑ in minute ventilation ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………....

77). Which of the following is decreased during pregnancy?

a). Cardiac output
b). Urinary frequency
c). Gastrointestinal motility*
d). Gastroesophageal reflux
..............................................................................................

1. GERD = ↑ intra-abdominal pressure + progesterone (↑ sphincter tone and delayed gastric emptying)

2. Progesterone ↑ gallstones (↑ gallbladder stasis), constipation + hemorrhoids (↓ GI motility)

3. Upward displacement of appendix (atypical appendicitis presentation) ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………....


78). Which of the following is increased during pregnancy?

a). Renal blood flow
b). GFR
c). Renin, angiotensin 1 and 11
d). All of the above*


...........................................................................
Genitourinary changes during pregnancy include:
1. ↑ urinary frequency
2. ↑ incidence of UTI and pyelonephritis
3. Glycosuriaà can be physiologic, must test for GDM
4. Uterus and renal pelvis dilation (R>L) due to progesterone-induced smooth muscle relaxation and uterine enlargement


………………………………………………………………………………………………………………....

79). What is the most common cerebral neoplasm during pregnancy?

a). Glioma*
b). Meningioma
c). Neurofibroma
d). Pituitary adenoma ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………....


80). Sex hormone binding globulin (SHBG) is NOT decreased in:

a). Obesity
b). Acromegaly
c). Corticosteroid therapy
d). Pregnancy and hyperthyroidism*


.......................................................................
Thyroid changes during pregnancy include
1. Moderate enlargement and increased basal metabolic rate
2. ↑ total thyroxine & TBG (thyroxine binding globulin)
3. Free thyroxine index and TSH levels are normal

Adrenal changes during pregnancy include
• Maternal cortisol rises throughout pregnancy (total and free) ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………....


81). Sex hormone binding globulin (SHBG) is increased in:

a obesity
b pregnancy*
c acromegaly
d hypothyroidism
e corticosteroid therapy ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………....

82). SHBG is decreased in:
a). cirrhosis
b). hirsutism*
c). pregnancy
d). estrogen therapy ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………....

83). Which of the following is decreased during pregnancy?

a). Serum calcium
b). Resin T4 uptake
c). Both*
d). Neither

..................................................................

Calcium changes during pregnancy include:
1. ↑ total maternal Ca due to ↓ albumin
2. Free ionized Ca (i.e active) proportion remains the same due to parathyroid hormone (PTH) which results in ↑ bone resorption and gut absorption
3. ↑ bone turnover but no loss of bone density because estrogen inhibits resorption ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………....


84). All of the following are cardiovascular adaptation to pregnancy EXCEPT:

a. cardiac output increases 33-45%
b. stroke volume increases 10-30%
c. heart rate decreases 1-18 beats per minute*
d. systolic blood pressure decreases 4-5 mmHg
e. diastolic blood pressure decreases 8-15 mmHG

...........................................................................................................................................................

85). Which of the following are decreased in pregnancy?

a. weight/heart rate/cardiac output/plasma volume
b. tidal volume/total lipids/total RBCs
c. diastolic blood pressure/functional residual volume*
d. T3/T4/thyroxine binding globulin (TBG)
e. serum cortisol/serum amylase/renal blood flow


................................................................................
Cardiovascular changes during pregnancy include:

1. Hyperdynamic circulation • ↑ CO, HR, and blood volume • ↓ BP due to↓ PVR
2. Enlarging uterus compresses IVC and pelvic veins • ↑ venous return (risk of hypotension) • ↑ venous pressure (varicose veins, hemorrhoids and leg edema)


..........................................................................................................


86). Which of the following is increased during pregnancy?
a). Renin*
b). Uric acid
c). Creatinine
d). All of the above ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………....

87). Hematocrit is decreased in:

a). Pregnancy*
b). dehydration
c). High altitude
d). Polycythemia ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………....

88). Pregnancy is associated with increased:

a). Hemoglobin
b). BP
c). WBCs*
d). None of the above


...............................................................................
Hematologic changes during pregnancy include:

1. Hemodilutionà apparent↑ in hemoglobin and hematocrit The rise in plasma volume is greater than red cell mass with relative hemodilution.

2. ↑ leukocyte count but impaired function- improvement in autoimmune disease

3. Gestational thrombocytopeniaà mild (platelets > 70,000/µL) and asymptomatic, normalizes within 2-12 weeks following delivery

4. Hypercoagulable stateà↑ risk of DVT and PE ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………....

89). All of the following may be observed in a normal pregnancy except?

a). Fall in serum iron concentration falls.
b). Increase in serum iron building capacity.
c). Increase in blood viscosity increases.*
d). Increase in blood oxygen carrying capacity. ..........................................................................................................

90). Decreased Hematocrit (hemoglobin) is associated:

a). Heart stroke
b). Cigarette smoking
c). Severe hypothermia
d). Normal or ectopic pregnancy*

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………....

91). Which of the following increases during pregnancy?

a). Hematocrit
b). Hemoglobin
c. Plasma volume* ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………....

92). Decreased vitamin B12 is seen in:

a). Leukemia
b). Pregnancy*
c). Both
d). Neither

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………....

93). Circulatory system changes at birth include the closer of:

a. Ductus arteriosus and ductus venosus
b. Umbilical arteries
c. Umbilical veins
d. Foramen ovale
e. All of the above*

..........................................................................................................


94). During pregnancy:

a. RBF is decreased
b. GFR is decreased
c. Kidney size is decreased
d. Serum creatinine and urea are decreased*
e. Renal pelvis and ureters are constricted

..........................................................................................................

95). During pregnancy, blood flow to which of the following organs is NOT increased?

a. Skin
b. Brain*
c. Breast
d. Kidney

..........................................................................................................

96). Which of the following is decreased during pregnancy?

a. Renin
b. Fibrinogen
c Albumin*
d. Prolactin
e. Cholesterol

.........................................................................................................

97). Which of the following is increased during pregnancy?
a Bicarbonate
b Urea
c Uric acid
d Alkaline phosphatase*
e Creatinine

..........................................................................................................

98) Following are increased in pregnancy, EXCEPT:

a alkaline phosphatase
b cholesterol
c bilirubin*
d fibrinogen
e white blood cells

..........................................................................................................

99). Pregnant women with positive Phalen's test are most likely to have:

a eclampsia
b preeclampsia
c abruptio placentae
d carpal tunnel syndrome*

..........................................................................................................

100). Pregnancy is associated with low levels of plasma:

a. renin
b. aldosterone *
c. both
d. neither


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